A true definition
Re: Subjective interpretation, Oct.17
To the Editor:
I write in an attempt to clarify some apparent misconceptions about the biblical view of sexuality. My intent is not to convince anyone the biblical view is correct; I merely hope to provide a clearer statement of this view.
Adam and Eve were not expelled from Eden because they had sexual intercourse, as Mr. McKenzie stated, but rather because they disobeyed God's instruction not to eat from the Tree of Knowledge of Good and Evil (Gen. 2:16-17; 3:1-13, 22-23). The Bible does not condemn all heterosexual sex, notwithstanding Professor Carroll's very clever article of Oct. 9. Careful consideration of Dr. Carroll's "proofs" of biblical denunciation of heterosexuality reveal them to be spurious, as I am sure he is well aware. For example, Onan was not killed because he engaged in heterosexual sex, but rather because he disobeyed God's will by refusing to impregnate his wife (Gen 38:6-10). As an aside, I believe this incident is the only example of coitus interruptus described in the Good Book.
Let me reiterate that heterosexual intercourse is not forbidden by the Bible; I cannot imagine a more ringing endorsement than the command to "be fruitful and multiply" (Gen 1:28); see also Prov. 5:18-19 and Heb. 13:4. Unambiguously forbidden is heterosexual activity outside of the marriage relationship and any homosexual activity (Dt. 23:17; Prov. 6:25-29; Mt. 5:27-28; Rom. 1:24-32; 1 Cor. 6:9-18; 1 Tim 1:10).
How does the Bible define a marriage? While polygamy was apparently common in Old Testament times, the Bible clearly states that monogamy is God's desire for humanity (Gen 2:24, Mt. 19:3-6). These verses indicate a marriage consists of one man and one woman united before God.
I hope I have shed some light on the biblical definition of sexual immorality. Of course, everyone should decide for themselves whether or not to allow this definition to influence their behavior.
PHD Biochemistry IV